MCQs PHARMACOLOGY: Autacoids

1 Autacoids differ from hormones in that:
A. Autacoids are involved only in the causation of pathological states
B. Autacoids do not have a specific cell/tissue of origin
C. Autacoids generally act locally at the site of generation and release
D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

2 Which of the following is a selective H1 receptor agonist:
A. 4-methyl histamine
B. Impromidine
C. 2-Thiazolyl ethylamine
D. Chlorpheniramine

3 The action of histamine that is not mediated through H1 receptors is:
A. Release of EDRF from vascular endothelium resulting in vasodilatation
B. Direct action on vascular smooth muscle causing vasodilatation
C. Bronchoconstriction
D. Release of catecholamines from adrenal medulla

 

4 Histamine exerts the following actions except:
A. Dilatation of large blood vessels
B. Dilatation of small blood vessels
C. Stimulation of isolated guineapig heart
D. Itching

.5 Fall in blood pressure caused by larger doses of histamine is blocked by:
A. H1 antihistaminics alone
B. H2 antagonists alone
C. Combination of H1 and H2 antagonists
D. None of the above

6 The following statement about histamine is not correct:
A. It is the sole mediator of immediate hyper-sensitivity reaction
B. It plays no role in delayed hypersensitivity reaction
C. It serves as a neurotransmitter in the brain
D. All types of histamine receptors are G protein coupled receptors

7 Histamine is involved as a mediator in the following pathological condition:
A. Delayed hypersensitivity reaction
B. Inflammation
C. Carcinoid syndrome
D. Variant angina

8 The drug that can directly release histamine from mast cells without involving antigen-antibody reac-tion is:
A. Aspirin
B. Procaine
C. Morphine
D. Sulfadiazine

 

9 High anticholinergic property is present in the following antihistaminic:
A. Diphenhydramine
B. Astemizole
C. Cetirizine
D. Terfenadine

10 The following H1 antihistaminic has additional anti 5-HT, anticholinergic, sedative and appetite stimu-lating properties:
A. Promethazine
B. Terfenadine
C. Cyproheptadine
D. Hydroxyzine

11 The conventional H1 antihistaminics possess the following additional properties except:
A. Local anaesthetic
B. Vasopressor
C. Antiarrhythmic
D. Catecholamine potentiating

12 The capacity of an antihistaminic to produce seda-tion depends on the following except:
A. Relative affinity for central versus periphe-ral H1 receptors
B. Ability to penetrate blood-brain barrier
C. Individual susceptibility
D. Ratio of H1:H2 blockade produced by the drug

13 While prescribing a first generation H1 antihistaminic the patient should be advised to avoid:
A. Driving motor vehicles
B. Consuming processed cheese
C. Strenuous physical exertion
D. All of the above

 

14 The following is not a feature of second generation antihistaminics:
A. Nonimpairment of psychomotor performance
B. High antimotion sickness activity
C. Absence of anticholinergic/anti 5-HT actions
D. Additional mechanisms of antiallergic action

15 The second generation H1 antihistaminics have the following advantages except:
A. Lack of anticholinergic side effects
B. Lack of alcohol potentiating potential
C. Recipient can drive motor vehicles
D. Good antipruritic action

16 The following second generation anti-histaminic is not likely to produce ventricular arrhythmias when administered along with ketoconazole:
A. Mizolastine
B. Ebastine
C. Terfenadine
D. Astemizole

17 Select the antihistaminic which blocks cardiac K+ channels when given in high doses or along with drugs that inhibit CYP3A4 isoenzyme:
A. Chlorpheniramine
B. Promethazine
C. Astemizole
D. Loratadine

18 Select the antihistaminic which modulates calcium channels and has prominant labyrinthine suppressant property:
A. Cyproheptadine
B. Cinnarizine
C. Clemastine
D. Cetirizine

 

19 Erythromycin should not be given to a patient being treated with terfenadine because:
A. Erythromycin induces the metabolism of terfenadine
B. Dangerous ventricular arrhythmias can occur
C. Terfenadine inhibitis metabolism of ery-thromycin
D. Terfenadine antagonizes the antimicrobial action of erythromycin

20 Fexofenadine differs from terfenadine in that:
A. It undergoes high first pass metabolism in liver
B. It is a prodrug
C. It does not block cardiac delayed rectifier K+ channels
D. It has high affinity for central H1 receptors

21 Select the H1 antihistaminic which is used topically in the nose for allergic rhinitis:
A. Loratadine
B. Cetirizine
C. Fexofenadine
D. Azelastine

22 H1 antihistaminics are beneficial in:
A. All types of allergic disorders
B. Certain type I allergic reactions only
C. Certain type IV allergic reactions only
D. Bronchial asthma

23 Benefit afforded by certain H1 antihistaminics in the following condition is not based on antagonism of histamine:
A. Dermographism
B. Insect bite
C. Common cold
D. Seasonal hay fever

 

11.1 The following biogenic amine is not actively taken up into its storage site by an active amine pump:
A. Histamine
B. 5-Hydroxy tryptamine
C. Dopamine
D. Noradrenaline

11.2 The following action of 5-Hydroxy tryptamine is mediated by the 5-HT3 receptor:
A. Vasoconstriction
B. Bradycardia
C. EDRF release
D. Platelet aggregation

11.3 The typical response to intravenous injection of 5-HT in an anaesthetised animal is:
A. Rise in BP
B. Fall in BP
C. Rise followed by brief fall in BP
D. Transient fall, followed by brief rise, followed by prolonged fall in BP

11.4 The following 5-HT receptor is not a G protein coupled receptor:
A. 5-HT1
B. 5-HT2
C. 5-HT3
D. 5-HT4

1 . 1 A
1 1 . 2 B
1 1 . 3D
1 1 . 4 C

 

11.5 Tachyphylaxis to many actions on repeated injec-tion is a feature of the following autacoid:
A. Histamine
B. 5-Hydroxytryptamine
C. Bradykinin
D. Prostaglandin
E2

11.6 The following is a selective 5-HT1D receptor agonist:
A. Buspirone
B. Ondansetron
C. Sumatriptan
D. α-methyl 5-HT

11.7 Actions of 5-HT2 receptor activation are primarily mediated by:
A. Increased membrane permeability to Na+ ions
B. Increased formation of cAMP
C. Activation of guanylyl cyclase
D. Generation of inositol trisphosphate and diacyl glycerols

11.8 The following serotonergic receptor functions pri-marily as an autoreceptor on neurones:
A. 5-HT1A
B. 5-HT2A
C. 5-HT3
D. 5-HT4

11.9 The smooth muscle stimulating action of 5-HT is most marked in the:
A. Bronchi
B. Intestines
C. Ureter
D. Biliary tract

11.5 B
11.6 C
11.7 D
11.8 A
11.9 B

 

11.10 5-HT appears to play a role in the following except:
A. Regulation of normal BP
B. Regulation of intestinal peristalsis
C. Haemostasis
D. Causation of migraine

11.11 The most important receptor involved in cytotoxic drug induced vomiting is:
A. Histamine H1 receptor
B. Serotonin 5-HT3 receptor
C. Dopamine D2 receptor
D. Opioid μ receptor

11.12 The following is a selective 5-HT4 agonist:
A. Buspirone
B. Sumatriptan
C. Cisapride
D. Clozapine

11.13 Methysergide has lost popularity as a prophylactic drug for migraine because of its:
A. Poor efficacy
B. Potential to cause visceral fibrosis
C. Oxytocic action
D. Potential to aggravate ischaemic heart disease

11.14 Blockade of both dopamine D2 and serotonin 5-HT2A/2C receptors is a distinctive feature of:
A. Pimozide
B. Haloperidol
C. Ketanserin
D. Clozapine

11.10 A
11.11 B
11.12 C
11.13 B
11.14 D

 

11.15 Dihydroergotamine (DHE) differs from ergotamine in the following respect:
A. It is a more potent oxytocic
B. It has antiemetic property
C. It has high oral bioavailability
D. It is a more potent α adrenergic blocker and less potent vasoconstrictor

11.16 Choose the ergot alkaloid that is well absorbed orally, has weak vascular but prominent uterine stimulant action:
A. Ergometrine
B. Ergotamine
C. Dihydroergotamine
D. Dihydroergotoxine

11.17 Select the ergot compound which is primarily used for dementia:
A. Bromocriptine
B. Ergotamine
C. Codergocrine
D. Methysergide

11.18 The ‘amine’ ergot alkaloid differs from ‘amino acid’ ergot alkaloid in that it has:
A. High oral bioavailability
B. Better CNS penetrability
C. Weaker oxytocic action
D. Strong anti-5-HT action

11.15 D
11.16 A
11.17 C
11.18 A